Monday, September 13, 2010

Islam: Nikah al-Mut'ah in the Qur'an

What many Sunnites fail to grasp is that by denying Qur'an verse 4:24 as a reference to an-Nikah al-Mut'ah (temporary marriage), they are consequently presenting many contradictions within their hadiths and even the Noble Qur'an itself.

I. Qur'an Surat An-Nisa, Verse Twenty Four:










II. Sunnite Tafsir and Translation:

{Sahih International translation}
"And [also prohibited to you are all] married women except those your right hands possess. [This is] the decree of Allah upon you. And lawful to you are [all others] beyond these, [provided] that you seek them [in marriage] with [gifts from] your property, desiring chastity, not unlawful sexual intercourse. So for whatever you enjoy [of marriage] from them, give them their due compensation as an obligation. And there is no blame upon you for what you mutually agree to beyond the obligation. Indeed, Allah is ever Knowing and Wise."

{Mohsin Khan tafsir}
"Also (forbidden are) women already married, except those (captives and slaves) whom your right hands possess. Thus has Allah ordained for you. All others are lawful, provided you seek (them in marriage) with Mahr (bridal money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage) from your property, desiring chastity, not committing illegal sexual intercourse, so with those of whom you have enjoyed sexual relations, give them their Mahr as prescribed; but if after a Mahr is prescribed, you agree mutually (to give more), there is no sin on you. Surely, Allah is Ever All-Knowing, All-Wise."

[Source: http://quran.com/4/24]

III. Implications:

According to both Sahih International's translation of the Qur'an as well as Mohsin Khan's tafsir, the word istimta'tum -- "to enjoy" -- is therefore an allusion of sexual relations, or consummation of marriage.


Therefore, Allah (subhana wa ta'ala) instructs the believer to pay the mahr post consummation of the marriage. 


IV. Contradictions with Sunnite Literature:

Sunnite literature seems to be at odds with this rule of thumb, as evidenced by the following hadith--

{Sunan Abu Dawuud Book 11:2121} 
Narrated a man from the Companions of the Prophet: Muhammad ibn Abdur-Rahman ibn Thawban reported on the authority of a man from the Companions of the Prophet: When Ali married Fatimah, daughter of the Apostle of Allah, he intended to have intercourse with her. The Apostle of Allah prohibited him to do so until he gave her something. Ali said: "I have nothing with me, Apostle of Allah." The Prophet said: "Give her your coat of mail." So he gave her his coat of mail, and then cohabited with her 

[Source: http://www.usc.edu/schools/college/crcc/engagement/resources/texts/muslim/hadith/abudawud/011.sat.html#011.2121] 

V. Sunnite "Refutations":

Interestingly enough, to "solve" this evident contradiction, Yusuf Ali -- who held many ties with the Wahabbite fascist regime of Saudi Arabia -- provides his own interpretation:

{Yusuf Ali translation - Qur'an 4:24}
Also (prohibited are) women already married, except those whom your right hands possess: Thus hath Allah ordained (Prohibitions) against you: Except for these, all others are lawful, provided ye seek (them in marriage) with gifts from your property,- desiring chastity, not lust, seeing that ye derive benefit from them, give them their dowers (at least) as prescribed; but if, after a dower is prescribed, agree Mutually (to vary it), there is no blame on you, and Allah is All-knowing, All-wise. 

Hence, Yusuf Ali conveniently interprets the ayah as a general sense of (non-lustful) benefit from the overall marriage -- for which the mahr is prescribed.

So the question yet remains for Sunnites -- which is the correct interpretation?